skeletal system

Question Answer
Skeletal The hard inner framwork of bones insdie an animal
Muscle Tissue that can contract producing movement
Cartilage The smooth, flexible material that connects some bones and provides shape for some body parts.
Joint A place where two bones come together.
Bones The individual parts of the skeleton.
Tendon Ropelike tissue that connects muscle to bone.

bones and common names

Question Answer
calcaneous heel bone
phalanges bones of the fingers and toes
coccyx tailbone
humerous upper arm bone
joint where the bones unite
carpals wrist bones
radius bone in lower arm -thumb side
clavicle collar bone
true ribs 7 upper pair that articulate with the sternum
cranium skull
axial skeleton trunk and head bones

Science Explorer Chemical Interactions Ch 4

Question Answer
Diamond a form of the element carbon in which the atoms are arranged in a crystal structure
Graphite a form of the element carbon in which a carbon atoms bonds closely together to form flat layers
organic compound most compounds that contain carbon
Hydrocarbon an organic compound that only contains carbon and hydrogen
Isomer a compound that has the same chemical formula but different structural formulas
hydroxyl group an –OH group found in alcohols
carboxyl group a –COOH group found in organic acids
Polymer a large molecule in which many smaller molecules are bonded together
Monomer one molecule that makes up the links in a polymer chain
carbohydrate an energy rich organic compound made of the elements carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen.
Glucose simple carbohydrate, the monomer of many complex carbohydrates
Starch complex carbohydrate in which plants store for energy
protein an organic compound that is a polymer of amino acids
lipid an energy rich organic compound made of the elements carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. Fats, oils, waxes, and cholesterol are all lipids
DNA a deoxyribonucleic acid.
RNA ribonucleic acid, a type of nucleic acid

CLI’s LECOm Exam 1 Semester 2 OMSII

Question Answer ssRNA +ve stranded icosahedral, spherical virus, non-enveloped Norovirus watery diarrhea, shortened intestinal villi, loss of digestive enzymes. Dx Norovirus Norovirus uses what enzyme first to replicate? RNA-dependant RNA polymerase. HIV enveloped or not? enveloped HIV ss or ds? ss and diploid HIV RNA or DNA? RNA HIV shape and capsid? spherical and icosahedral HIV + or – sense? + sense (I’m HIV+) What does HIV bind to enter cell? CD4 cell surface receptor and co-receptors 4 cell types that HIV invades? CD4+ helper T, monos, dendritic cells, and macrophages What do you detect to Dx HIV? And to follow it? HIV antibodies, proviral DNA, and p24 antigen. Follow HIV-1 RNA load Where do you see HIV-2? Africa What enzyme does HIV use for replication, first? RNA-dependant DNA polymerase **reverse transcriptase. 3 HIV viral genes for structural proteins gag, pol, env Very small gram negative Hard to culture, mainly Dx by serology Rickettsiae Likes endothelial cells, needs ATP, CoA, and NAD Rickettsiae Rickettseae Tx Tetra-, Doxy-cyclin, chloramphenicol Rickettseae transmitted by tick, flea, mite, lice Person drinks contaminated milk, develops diarrhea, gram negative gull shaped rod is isolated. Is the organism motile? yes, polar flagellum What do C.jejuni colonies look like on agar? water droplettes Special needs to grow C.Jejuni enriched media, 10%O2, 42*C x 24-72hr Can C.jejuni invade gut mucosa? yes Anaerobic Pleomorphic gram – rod/coccobacilli, non-motile, non-spore forming B.fragilis B. fragilis special culture needs 48hr at 35* grown on blood agar or other anaerobic media Specimen grows on anaerobic media, giving off a foul smell, produces acetate and succinate b.fragilis Transmitted endogenously from normal gut flora B. Fragilis Causes Lyme disease Borelia Burgdorferi Causes relapsing fever Borrelia Recurrentis Bit by tick, with erythema chronicum migrans erupts Cause? B. burgdorferi Bit by lice, fever waxes and wanes Cause? B. recurrentis Stains used to see Borrelia under light microscope Giemsa or acridine orange Common cause of BV Gardnerella Vaginalis Gram variable rod, facultatively anaerobic, needs increased CO2 to grow G. vaginalis Clue cells, with positive whiff test after KOH G. Vaginalis From bird droppings, hyphae in soil, spores in haled, yeast in body Histoplasma Dx: Culture on SDA with yeast cells in sputum or lungs Histoplasma Coiled larva in muscle biopsy, diarrhea, muscle aches, Pt makes own smoked ham T. spiralis 2-3 nm roundworm Trichinella Spiralis Pt had brain surgery 30 years ago in Botswana (?), develops neuro Sxs, dies, intracellular vacuoles found in brain on autopsy. Cause CJD Becca’s BF from the UK develops neurological Sxs as well as everyone in his family who ate the same beef strokemeoff. Dx? vCJD from bovine spongiform encephalopathy Pathogenesis of prion disease. What does is do? Deposits altered host-protein 90yo Papua New Guinea warrior w/ neurological Sxs, keeps smiling/laughing and shaking. Dx Kuru

Clinical Kinesiology Chapter 3

Question Answer
A connection between two bones Joint
What are the purposes of joints? 1)Allow for WEIGHT BEARING 2)Allow for MOTION 3)provide STABILITY
The type of joint that has a thin layer of fibrous periosteum between the bones: fibrous joint
What are the 3 types of fibrous joints? Synarthroses, Syndesmoses, and Gomphoses
The fibrous joint that is commonly called a 'suture joint' and is essentially immovable. Its purpose to provide shape and strength: synarthrosis ex) sutures of the skull
The type of fibrous joint, otherwise known as a ligamentous joint, that has a great deal of fibrous tissue holding the joint together. It provides very little to no motion. syndesmosis ex) distal radioulnar joint, distal tibiofibular joint
This fibrous joint's name means 'bolting together.' This joint occurs between a tooth and the wall of its dental socket in the mandible and maxilla. gomphosis "peg in socket"
___________ ________ allow a SMALL amount of motion, such as bending, twisting, and some compression. amphiarthrodial joints (also called 'cartilaginous joints)
This type of joint is characterized by fibrocartilage or hyaline cartilage directly connecting the bones: cartilaginous joint/ amphiarthrodial joint
This fibrous joint has interlocking ends, provides NO MOTION, and provides shape and strength: synarthrosis
This fibrous joint has VERY LITTLE to NO MOTION. Its purpose is to provide shape and strength. Examples include the slight twist of the distal tibiofibular joint and of the distal radioulnar joint during supination/pronation of the arm: syndesmosis (also called ligamentous joint)
The joint that has no direct union between the bone ends: synovial joint (also called diarthrodial)
This joint provides stability, absorbs shock, and provides slight movement: cartilaginous/ amphiarthrosis
Vertebral joints are examples of which type of joint? cartilaginous/ amphiarthrosis (the intervertebral disks are made of fibrocartilage)
The first sternocostal joint (the connection between the sternum and first rib) is an example of which type of joint? cartilaginous/ amphiarthrosis (the bones are directly connected with hyaline cartilage)
The epiphyseal plates found in the long bones of children are which kind of joint? cartilaginous/ amphiarthrosis (it is a layer of hyaline cartilage)
Diarthrodial joints are also called: synovial joints
This type of joint is not quite as stable as the other joint types, but it allows for free motion: synovial (diarthrodial) joint
Name the 4 different types of diarthrodial (synovial) joints: nonaxial, uniaxial, biaxial, triaxial (or multiaxial)
The type of motion allowed by a diarthrodial joint depends on: the shape of the bones
The movement provided by this type of diarthrodial joint tends to be linear; the bone surfaces glide over one another, rather than producing angular motion: nonaxial (also called a plane joint)
The other name for nonaxial joint is: plane joint
Intercarpals are examples of this type of joint: nonaxial/ plane joint
Diarthrodial (synovial) joints are classified by ________ ___ ________. degrees of freedom
Degrees of freedom of diarthrodial joints indicate the number of ________ the joint can move in. planes
A nonaxial joint has __ degree(s) of freedom. 0
In this diarthrodial joint, the motion is ACCESSORY; it only occurs SECONDARILY to other joint motion: nonaxial/ plane joint ex) motion of the carpals cannot occur on their own – the movement of another joint produces that motion)
This synovial joint provides 1 degree of freedom: uniaxial (hinge and pivot joints)
The elbow and knee are examples of this specific type of synovial joint: uniaxial – HINGE joint
What are the 2 types of uniaxial joints? hinge joints and pivot joints
The movement between the atlas (C1) and axis (C2) is specifically this type of joint: uniaxial – PIVOT joint
The head of the radius moves around the stationary ulna during pronation and supination of the forearm this is an example of a(n) _________ ________ _________. uniaxial pivot joint
This type of synovial joint provides 2 degrees of freedom: biaxial joint
What are the 2 types of biaxial joints? condyloid joint (also called oviod or ellipsoidal) and saddle joint (also called sellar)
_________ joint motion occurs on 2 different planes. Biaxial
This specific type of synovial joint provides movement on two planes, by a concave surface sliding over a convex surface: biaxial condyloid joint
This specific synovial joint provides movement on two planes, with each articular surface being convex in one plane and concave in the other: biaxial saddle (Sellar) joint
Movement at the wrist is provided by a _________ _________ ________. biaxial condyloid joint
Metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints are which type of biaxial joint? condyloid
The carpometacarpal joint (MCP) is which type of biaxial joint? saddle (sellar) – In addition to flexion/extension and abduction/adduction, this joint also has an ACCESORY motion of rotation, but still fits in to the biaxial category because the rotation is not an ACTIVE movement)
This type of synovial joint has 3 degrees of freedom: triaxial joint (multiaxial)
This type of synovial joint allows more motion than any other type: triaxial
_________ joints are ACTIVELY capable of adduction/abduction, flexion/extension, and rotation. triaxial
triaxial joints are also referred to as _______ _____ ________ joints. ball-and-socket
The hip and shoulder are this type of synovial joint: triaxial (ball-and-socket)
In this type of synovial joint, a convex surface fits into a concave socket. Motion is able to occur in the saggital plane, frontal plane, and transverse plane. triaxial (ball-and-socket)
_______ ___ ________ are fixed lines of reference along which the body is divided. Planes of action
This plane divides the body into right and left: saggital plane
Flexion and extension occur in this plane: saggital plane
This plane divides the body into anterior and posterior: frontal plane
abduction and adduction occur in this plane: frontal plane
This plane divides the body into inferior/superior: transverse plane
Internal and external rotation occur in this plane: transverse plane
There are 3 palnes of action, each at ________ angles and perpendicular to the other 2 planes. right
The point where the 3 planes of action intersect is the: Center of Gravity (COG)
In the human body, the location of the ________ ____ _______ is approximately slightly __________ to the second sacral vertebra (S2) center of gravity / anterior
_______ are points that run through the center of a joint, around which a part rotates. Axes
This axis runs through a joint from front to back: sagittal axis
What are the motions that occur around the saggital axis? abduction and adduction
A part that is moving in the frontal plane is moving around the _________ axis. sagittal
This axis runs through a joint from side to side: frontal axis
What are the motions that occur around the frontal axis? flexion and extension
A part that is moving in the sagittal plane is moving around the ________ axis. frontal
This axis runs through a joint from top to bottom: vertical (or longitudinal) axis
What are the movements that occur around the longitudinal axis? Medial/lateral rotation, forearm supination/pronation, shoulder horizontal abduction/adduction
Bands of fibrous connective tissue that SURROUND a joint: capsular ligaments
The two bones of a diarthrodial (synovial) joint are held together and supported by: ligaments
Ligaments provide attachment for _________, ___________, and in some cases, __________. cartilage, fascia, and in some cases, muscle
Ligaments are _________, but NOT _________. This allows joint motion, but ensures bones stay in close approximation to aech other. ARE flexible, but NOT elastic.
fibrous bands that prevent excessive joint movement: ligaments
The part of a synovial joint that surrounds and encases the joint and protects the articular surfaces of bone: joint capsule
What are the 2 layers that make up the joint capsule of synovial joints? Outer layer and the inner layer.
In synovial joints, this layer of the joint capsule is lined with synovial membrane: inner layer
The ________ _________ secretes the fluid that lubricates the articular cartilage, decreases friction to allow joint motion, and provides some shock absorption: synovial membrane (secretes synovial fluid)
The synovial membrane is a ________, ________ connective tissue. thick, vascular
_______ ________ is a clear egg white-like substance that is the major source of nutrition for articular cartilage. synovial fluid
In diarthrodial (synovial) joints, this layer of the joint capsule is made of fibrous tissue and provides support and protection to the joint; it is usually reinforced by ligaments: outer layer
_________ is dense, fibrous connective tissue. Cartilage
This type of cartilage covers the ends of bones and has no nerve supply. It gets all nutrition from synovial fluid. It cannot repair itself if damaged. articular (hyaline) cartilage
This type of cartilage acts as a shock absorber: fibrocartilage
This type of cartilage is especially important in weight-bearing joints like the knee and vertebrae fibrocartilage
This type of cartilage is designed to maintain a structure's shape: elastic cartilage
The cartilage is found in the external ear, the eustachian (auditory) tube, and the larynx: elastic cartilage
This type of connective tissue connects muscle to bone: tendon
Fibrous sleeves that surround a _______ when it is subject to pressure or friction as it passes through muscle or bone are called _______ ________. tendons / tendon sheaths ie) the tendons passing over the wrist
__________ is a broad, flat tendinous sheet. aponeurosis ie) latissimus dorsi connecting to back; linea alba connecting to abdominal muscles
The aponeurosis that attaches the right and left abdominal muscles in the midline of the anterior trunk: linea alba
Small sacs lined with synovial membrane and filled with fluid; located in areas of excessive friction such as under tendons or over bony prominences. Their purpose is to decrease friction between moving parts: bursae
Refers to the COMPLETE separation of the two articular surfaces of a joint, in which a portion of the joint capsule surrounding the joint will be torn: dislocation
fracture: broken bone
A partial dislocation of the joint, usually occurring over time: subluxation
Partial or complete tearing of fibers of a ligament: sprain
The tearing of a FEW ligament fibers, resulting in NO loss of function: mild sprain
The partial tearing of the ligament with some loss of function: moderate sprain
The complete rupture (tear) of the ligament, with complete loss of function: severe sprain
Refers to the overstretching of muscle fibers: strain
Inflammation of a tendon: tendonitis
Inflammation of a tendon sheath: tenosynovitis
Inflammation of the synovial membrane: synovitis
Inflammation of the bursae; bursitis
Inflammation of the joint capsule: capsulitis

LECOM CNS Path Ch 28

Question Answer
Gradual HA, R pupil dialated and awkward movements and PCA area ischema transtentorial herniation
3 causes of microcephaly Chromosomal, FAS, HIV-1
Large midline non-neoplastic cyst where vermis should be Dandy Walker Malformation
Hydrocephalus, Lumbar meningiomyelocele, small posterior fossa, cerebellum extended through the foramen magnum Chiari II malformation
10-20yo, isolated loss of pain and temperature in upper extremity syringomylia
Premature baby, chalky yellow plaques, white and grey involvement with large cystic lesioins multicystic encephalopathy
Old traumatic lesions on brain appear depressed, retracted, yellow/brown aka plaque jaune
PP post MVA. No papilledema, no decerebrate posturing , no spontaneous movements. Unconcious. Head CT: no intracranial hemmorhage or edema and no skull fractures. Remains in persistent vegetative state. Lesion? Diffuse axonal injury. followed by axonal swelling with silver impregnation
A pt hits head hard, comes to ER talks to doc, becomes unconscious then becomes comatose – which type of hematoma? Epidural – talk and die
Old person falls yesterday, then headache and confusion. What is the Dx what would CT scan show? Subdural hematoma- tearing of the bridging veins Crescent-shaped hemorrhage that crosses suture lines w/ preserved gyri
What could cause an 80 year old to go in and out of consciousness who has blood in subdural space? Tear of bridging vein – subdural hematoma
Area most susceptible to global ischemia- shows sickle shaped area of necrosis ACA-PCA watershed area
Widespread white matter hemorrhages most likely due to bone marrow emboli
55 y.o. man suddenly loses conciousness. Examination: Bilateral Papilledema. No spontaneous movements. What underlying condition caused this? Systemic Hypertension
Brain with intra-parenchyma bleed in cerebral cortex. Vessels are open on cross section. Cause? CAA
CAA where is the bleed? What stain for vessels? What mutation? leptomeningeal or cortical arterioles; Congo Red amyloid; e2 or e4 allele
79 y.o. woman was driving her automobile when she had a sudden, severe headache. She was taken to the ER, where she remained comatose and died 6 hours later. What was the cause? Rupture of Berry Aneurysm. Aneurysm in the circle of Willis and extensive subarachnoid hemmorhage.
27yo w/ Hx of seizures living in 3rd world country. Comes to USA. Area of high blood flow on MRA. Gliosis and evidence of recent and remote hemorrhage. conglomerate of various-sized tortous vessels surrounded by gliosis. What is this caused from? AV malformation.
Most common cause of meningitis in 20 year old male? How would brain appear histologically? Neisseria meningitidis (6-60 yrs of age) — purulent exudate on the cerebral convexities indicitve of a bacterial infection
5 y.o. boy has meningitis. What would be seen on gram stain? Gram-positive cocci. Most common organism is Streptococcus Pneumoniae, which is gram-positve coccus.
90yo immunocompetent Pt with bacterial meningitis. 2 most common causes Strep Pneumo and Listeria
Arachnoid fibrosis common in what meningitis? Strep Pneumo
Basal purulent exudate indicative of what infection? H. influenza meningitis
Dense purulent cover over cerebral convexaties with meningitis is indicative of pneumococcal infx
CSF high opening pressure; increased WBC; increased protein; normal glucose Dx, most likely cause and predisposing condition (multiple)Brain abscess, strep & staph, (acute bacterial endocarditis)
Pt c/o HA, vomiting, then massive cerebral ischemia. Autopsy: sub-arachnoid basal gelatinous exudate, CSF:monocytosis and TONS of protein, obliterave endarteritis in sub-arachnoid space. Acid-fast + Cause? Tuberculosis meningoencephalitis
Pt presents with delusions of grandeur-> sever dementia, Inflammatory lesions in frontal lobe, Loss of neurons, proliferative rod cells, gliosis, iron deposit (Prussian blue) Dx and cause? Neurosyphalis Paretic type
Pt at neurologist with Locomotive ataxia; loss of pain sensation and DTRs Histo: Dorsal root degeneration- loss of axons and myelin, atrophy of dorsal column Neuro syphilis Tabes Dorsalis
Seizures, stupor, ocular palsies, asymmetrical reflexes with microglial nodules centered around necrosis and neuronophagia Cause? Arthopod borne encephalitis
Polio like syndrome West Nile encephalitis
Child with mood changes, and memory loss. Necrotic, hemorrhagic lesions in inferior, medial temporal lobe. Cause HSV-1
BUZZ: Cowdry Type A intranuclear inclusion in glia and neuron HSV-1
Neo-nate with microcephaly, periventricular necrosis and calcification Dx CMV
AIDS patient autopsy: paraventricular cytomegalic cells with cytoplasmic and nuclear inclusion bodies. With hemorrhagic necrosis Dx CMV
BUZZ: Negri body in Purkinji cell Rabies
Cytoplasmic round/oval eosinophilic inclusions in pyramidal neurons of the hippocampus or Purkinji cells in the cerebellum Rabies
Malaise, headache, fever, animal bite mark with paresthesias around it rabies
Encephalitis with microglial nodules and multinucleated giant cells HIV
AIDS patient presents with a demyelinating condition that resulted due to a latend virus. What is it? JC papovavirus. Patient has progressive multifocal leukoencephalopahty (PML)
Multifocal lesions of hemisphereic/cerebellar liped laiden macrophages, peripheral enlarged oligodendrocyte nuclei w/ glassy amphophilic nuclear inclusions PML w/ JC virus
HIV patient Gelatinous exudate in CSF with “soap bubble” destruction of basal ganglia and perivascular lesions Cryptococcus
Person with following progression : ataxia, autonomic disturbances, stupor, coma. With neuronal loss in AV and DM nuclei. FFI
Pt presents w/ paresthesias in arm, difficulty walking and then the problems will go away. Then he has problems seeing and writing. What would you find in CSF?
how else does this disease present?
how else do you diagnos?
MS – oligoclonal bands of IgG
SIN – scanning speech, Intention tremor, incontinence, internuclear opthalmoplegia, nystagmus
MRI is gold standard but diagnostic is made on Oligoclonal bands (also periventricular plaques seen)
Homologous perivenular lesions of myelin loss, axon preservation, lipid laiden macrophages. Child after viral Infx, died after HA and coma ADEM
Perivenular necrosis of grey and white matter, small artery destruction, hemorrhage, demylination Child post respiratory illness. Death ANHE
Alcoholic with hyponatremia is corrected too quickly. Results in .. Central Pontine Myelinolysis
What is most important factor in the development of alzheimers?
What are some histological findings?
Inheritance of the e4 allele oat the ApoE4 gene – numerous plaques, amyloid in peripheral cerebral arteries, tangles,Tau protein
Early onset personality change, and language disturbances. Wafer thin gyri, lobar atrophy Dx and sites Pick Disease, fronto/temporal , altered Tau protein
Truncal ridgidity, disequilibrium, nuchal dystonia, trouble moving eyes. GP, STn, SN, dentate nucleus. 4R tau protiens Progressive Supranuclear Palsy
Tau positive threads in grey and white matter, tufted astrocytes, coiled bodies, and cortical atrophy in the elderly Corticobasilar Degeneration
SNpc degeneration with Lewy bodies a-synuclein + Alzheimers
AD like Sxs, with dementia, hallucinations, with lewy bodies scattered throughout the brain Dementia with Lewy Bodies
Choreaic movements, striatal degeneration Huntingtons Disease
Huntington’s genetics CAG repeat on chromosome 4
Which disease causes loss of UMN leading to progressive muscular weakness from grouped atrophy of skeletal muscle fibers and loss of anterior horn cells — what is the defect? ALS or Lou Gerigs disease – defect in superoxide dismutase 1 (SOD1) – commonly presents as fasiculations
55 y.o. who had been healthy all his life now has progressive, symmetric muscular weakness. What is the condition? Amyotropic Lateral Sclerosis aka ALS aka Lou Gehrig's Disease.
Krabbe Disease deficiency and buzz word galactocerebroside B-galactosidase – Globoid Cell
Childhood motor changes- dead in 5-10 years-vaculolated macrophages w/ crystalloid structures Metachromatic leukodystrophy
White matter dysfunction. Tissue has “tigroid” look Pelizaeus-Merzbacher Disease
Alcoholic, Focus of hemorrhage and necrosis in the mammillary bodies and 3rd/4th ventricle walls What deficiency? B1
What is most common histological finding in someone w/ CJD? Spongiform encephalopathy
Which vitamin deficiency is seen in chronic alcoholics? What is the name of this dementia Thiamine, B1 – Wernicke – confusion, opthalmoplegia, and ataxia (wernicke's encephalopathy.)
Korsakoff if personality change and memory problems
A person w/ diabetes melliitus is most likely prone to which type of dementia? Vascular dementia – stepwise loss of cognitive function
Atrophy and loss of granule cells in cerebellum w/ loss of Perkinji cells and Bergman Gliosis. Truncal ataxia, nystagums Dx Ethanol toxicity
Which pathologic findings will a brain present with in Parkinson's? Loss of pigmented neurons in substantia nigra, Lewy bodies (composed of a-synuclein
Which neoplasm is likely to present as a mass attached to the dura of the brain w/ occasional psammoma bodies? what are psammoma bodies? Meingiomas -spindle cells concentrically arranged in a whorled pattern w/ laminated caclifications
If a pt has hyponatrium and it is corrected to quickly what is the negative outcome? Demyelination in the bais pontis – can lead to death
What are the two most common neoplasms in children, which location of brain? How would the better prognosis present? Posterior fossa – the astrocytoma – would stain postiive for GFAP(better prognosis) and
medulloblastoma – pseudoroseette (homer-wright – or small blue cells, cause hydrocehphalus
What would you find in CNS of a pt w/ huntingtons? Atrophy and gliosis of the caudate nuclei
A child presents w/ progressive worsening of movement and mental ability and dies, myelin loss is noted.. What could cause this? What is a common opportunistic infection that affects the CNS in pt's w/ aids?
5yo complained of headache for the past week. Ataxic Gait. sudden onset of vomitting, becomes comatose. Afebrile. Head CT: 4-cm mass in cerebellar vermis and dilation of cerebral ventricles. CSF: small cells with dark blue nuclei and scant cytoplasm. Medulloblastoma.
49 y.o. woman has had several headaches for 2 days. Afebrile and normotensive. Fundoscopy: Papilledema on the right. One day later, patient has right pupillary dilation and impaired ocular movement. Then becomes Obtunded What's the condition? Transtentorial medial temporal herniation.
PP Primary Brain Tumor that on microscopy looks like spindle cells concentrically arranged in a whorled pattern (psmammoma bodies: laminated calcifications). What is it? Meningioma.
A previously healthy 16 y.o. boy has complained of headaches for the past 9 months. Enlargement of 4th Ventricle. What is it? Ependymoma.
Pt. has mass in brain. Stereotactic biopsy of the mass shows areas of necrosis surrounded by nuclear pseudopalisading. The neoplastic cells within the mass are hyperchromatic. Neoplasm? Glioblastoma Multiforme.
HIV Patient has Pneumocystis Jiroveci. Brain MRI: diffuse cerebral atrophy, and no focal lesions are identified. What would be seen in brain? White matter microglial nodules with multinucleate cells. Patient has AIDS dementia complex late in the course of his HIV infection.
4yo developed clumsiness and difficulty ambulating over 6 months developed CHF from hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. She also had hyperglycemia. Autopsy: increased perinuclear iron deposition within cardiac myocytes. Which genetic abnormalities with TNRE? GAA repeats in the frataxin gene. Patient has Friedrich's ataxia The frataxin gene encodes for a protein involved in iron regulation in cells.
Friedreich is Fratastic (frataxin): he's your favorite frat brother, always stumbling, staggering, and falling.
63yo increasing irritability over 3 years. Then marked memory loss. Autopsy: Frontal cortex extensive neoronal loss on microscopy and some remaining neurons show intracytoplasmic, faintly eosinophilic, rounded inclusions that stain IHC for tau protein. Pick Disease aka Frontotemporal Dementia. Has clinical features similar to Alzhemier's disease, but initially it causes less memory loss and more behavorial changes.
20 y.o. mentally retarded woman saw physician because of flank pain for 1 week. Patches of leathery (shagreen patches) and hypopigmented (ash-leaf patches) skin were scattered over her body. What is it? Tuberous Sclerosis is one of the phakomoatoses (or "neurocutaneous syndromes").
40 y.o. man, who rarely has headaches, now experiences headaches for the past 6 months. Dies. Microscopy: mass consists of cells with round nuclei with clear cytoplasm. What's the prognosis? Oligodendroglioma.
PP with a primary brain tumor that has characteristic perivascular pseudorosettes and rod-shaped blepharoplast (basal ciliary bodies) found in nucleus. What is it? Ependymoma. The tumors arise in the ventricles (usually 4th ventricles)
PP w/ cell study: large cells with large nuclei and scant cytoplasm that mark CD19, but no GFAP or cytokeratin. What is it? Diffuse Large B-cell Lymphoma. Most common adult Non-Hogkin Lymphoma
60 y.o. woman with Parkinsons. IHC stain for what type of protein is positive? alpha-synuclein.
PP with cerebellar tonsillar herniation through foramen magnum with aqueductal stenosis and hydrocephaly. Brain MRI would show what malformation? Arnold-Chiari Type II malformation. Often presents with syringomyelia, thoraco-lumbar myelomenigocele.
Infant born at 36 weeks gestation is suffering from cyclopia. The infant died 1 hour after birth. What did the baby have and what condition is this seen in.? Holoprosencephaly. Trisomy 13 (Patau's) M.C. but can be seen in maternal DM and fetal alcohol syndome as well
86 y.o. man. Histological Exam of the brain: numerous neocortical neuritic plaques and neurofibirllary tangles. What is seen histologically in plaques and what is seen histologically in tangles? Plaques: Aggregation of AB peptide. Tangles: tau protein Alzheimer's disease.
PP with brain tumor in cerebral hemisphere. "Pseudopalisading" Pleomorphic cells positive for GFAP. Neoplasm? Glioblastoma Multiforme. Most common primary brain tumor

Plant & Animal Cells Review

Question Answer
The basic unit of structure and function in living things. CELL
Thin structure that surrounds a cell and controls the movement of materials into and out of the cell. CELL MEMBRANE
The control center of a cell. NUCLEUS
All the living material that floats inside the jelly-like substance in the cell except the nucleus. CYTOPLASM
Rice-shaped structures that produce energy for a cell. MITOCHONDRIA
Small structures in the cytoplasm that do special jobs. ORGANELLES
Small round structures that make proteins. RIBOSOMES
Liquid-filled spaces in the cytoplasm that act like storage bins. VACUOLE
Outer, nonliving part of a plant cell. CELL WALL
Round, green structures in a plant cell. CHLOROPLAST
Green material that gives a plant its green color. CHLOROPHYLL


Question Answer
what is soil? relatively thin surface layer of the Earth’s crust
What does soil consist of? mineral and organic matter that is affected by agents such as weather, wind, water, and organism
What are the 4 distinct parts of soil? mineral particles, organic matter, water, air
What percent of soil is mineral particles? 45%
What percent of soil is organic matter? 5%
What percent of soil is water? 25%
What percent of soil is air? 25%
Why is soil important to microorganisms? inhabit the soil & depend on it for shelter, food & water
Why is soil important to plants? Plants anchor themselves into the soil, and get their nutrients and water
Why is soil important to terrestrial plants could not survive without soil, therefore, humans could not exist without soil either
Is soil a renewable or nonrenewable resource? Renewable resource
What does soil provide nutrients for? for plant growth and also helps purify water
What is weathering? Soil formation begins when bedrock is broken down by physical, chemical and biological processes
What are mature soils? soils that have developed over a long time
What are soil horizons a series of horizontal layers
How is the parent material of soil formed? The rock that has slowly broken down into smaller particles by biological, chemical, and physical weathering
How long does it take parent material to form? To form 2.5 cm (1 in.) it may take from 200-1000 years
What are examples of physical weathering? Erosion (wind, water, ice, etc)
List some examples of chemical weathering A plant’s roots or animal cells undergo cell respiration and the CO2 produced diffuses into soil, reacts with H2O & forms carbonic acid (H2CO3). This eats parts of the rock away
What produces new soil? decomposition
Where is soil NOT renewable in tropical rainforests
Why isn't soil renewable in tropical rain forests? all of the nutrients are caught in the trees and when cut down & burned the soil cannot get the nutrients back
How do you measure soil with texture The percentages (by weight) of different sized particles of sand, silt and clay that it contains
What is the texture of gravel/stones >2mm in diameter
What is the texture of sand 0.05 to 2mm
Which has the larger soil particles? Sand
What is the soil texture of silt? .002 to .05 mm
What is about the size of flour and barely visible with the eye? Silt
What is the soil texture of clay? <.002mm
Which soil texture has the greatest surface value and can only be seen under an electronic microscope? Clay
Why is gravel/stones not actually considered soil? it doesn’t have direct value to plants
What does it mean if soil is gritty? It has a lot of sand
What does it mean is soil is sticky? high clay sat_flash_1 and you should be able to roll it into a clump
What does it mean if soil is smooth, like flour? It is silt
What is the structure of soil? How soil particles are organized and clumped together. (Sand, silt, clay)
What is Friability in soil? How easily the soil can be crumbled
What is the Porosity in soil? A measure of the volume of soil and the average distances between the spaces
What is Permeability in soil The rate at which water and air moves from upper to lower soil layers. It is distances between those spaces
How do soils vary? in the size of the particles they contain, the amount of space between these particles, and how rapidly water flows through them
What is shrink well potential? Some soils, like clays, swell when H2O gets in them, then they dry and crack. This is bad for house foundations, etc.
What is the pH of most soils? 4.0 to 8.0
What is the pH of the Pygmy Forest in California? extremely acidic with 2.8 to 3.9
What is the pH of Death Valley California? very basic 10.5
Why are plants affected by pH because of the solubility of nutrient minerals
Why do steep slopes have little or no soil on them? because of gravity
What does runoff from precipitation do to a slope? it erodes it
What do moderate slopes and valleys encourage? the formation of deep soils
Where are soils very shallow in texas? San Antonio
Soil depth can range from? 2 inches of soil then rock or 36 inches deep of soil
What does dark soil say? it is rich with lots of organic matter
What does light soil like sand say? not so rich with very little organic matter
What is the uppermost layer of the soil called? O-horizon/Organic Layer
What is the O-horizon/Organic layer rich in? organic material
What accumulates in the O-horizon? plant litter and it gradually decays
When is the O-horizon completely absent? in desert soils
When is the O-horizon a dominant layer? in certain organically rich soils
What is horizon is top soil? A-horizon
What is topsoil/A-horizon? dark and rich in accumulated organic matter and humus
What horizon/layer has a granular texture? Topsoil/A-horizon
Why is topsoil/A-horizon some what nutrient poor? due to the loss of many nutrient minerals to deeper layers and by leaching
Which layer is the B horizon? the sub soil layer
What is subsoil/B-horizon? The light-colored subsoil beneath the A-horizon
Why is subsoil/B-horizon often a zone of illuviation? nutrient minerals have leached out of the topsoil and litter accumulate
Which soil layer is typically rich in iron and aluminum compounds and clay? Subsoil/ B-horizon
Which layer is the C-horizon? Parent Material
What is in the C-horizon/Parent material? contains weathered pieces of rock and borders the unweathered solid parent material
Why is C-horizon/Parent material often saturated with ground water? Most roots do not go down this deep
What happens during Infiltration? the downward movement of water through soil
What happens during Leaching? dissolving of minerals and organic matter in upper layers carrying them to lower layers
What does soil type determine? the degree of infiltration and leaching
What are macronutrients? larger in atomic structure
What are examples of macronutrients? Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Potassium
What are examples of micronutrients? Selenium, Zinc, Iron
What are micronutrients? smaller in atomic structure
What are organic fertilizers? animal manure, crop residues, bone meal, and compost
What are inorganic fertilizers? man-made from chemical compounds
What are benefits of inorganic fertilizers? exact compositions are known; they are soluble & thus immediately available to the plant
What are the costs of inorganic fertilizers? quickly leach away; this pollutes the water; doesn’t help the water holding capacity of the soil like organic fertilizers do
How much soil is eroded in the US each year? 6.4 billion tons
How much would 6.4 billion tons fill up this would fill 320 million average-sized dump trucks that, if parked end-to-end, would extend to the moon and ? of the way back
What is erosion the movement of soil components, especially surface litter and topsoil, from one place to another
What do the roots of plants do in undisturbed ecosystems? help anchor the soil
What destroys plant cover and leaves soil vulnerable to erosion? farming, logging, construction, overgrazing by livestock, off-road vehicles, deliberate burning of vegetation
Destroying soil in a few decades ruins solid that took how long to produce? what nature took hundreds to thousands of years to produce
Soil erosion lowers what? soil fertility
Soil erosion can overload what? nearby bodies of water eroded with sediment
What is sheet erosion? surface water or wind peel off thin layers of soil
What is rill erosion? fast flowing little rivulets of surface water make small channels
What is gully erosion? fast-flowing water join together to cut wider and deeper ditches or gullies
Soil is eroding at what rate? faster than it is forming on more than one-third of the world’s cropland
Soil erodes faster than it forms on most U.S. cropland, but since 1985 it has decreased by 40%
What happened in the 1985 Food Security Act (Farm Act)? farmers receive a subsidy for taking highly erodible land out of production and replanting it with soil saving plants for 10-15 years
What is splash (water erosion)? water hits the soil at a severe angle (based on slope) which can erode soil
What is sheet (water erosion)? when surface water moves down a slope or across a field in a wide flow and peels off fairly uniform sheets of soil.
What happens to topsoil during sheet erosion? it disappears evenly, and may not be noticeable until too much damage has been done
What is mass slippage (water erosion)? very wet and large amounts of soil slip away in large chunks called mud slides ex-California
What is Rill (water erosion)? concentrated flow across the surface of soil. its leaves rivets called micro channels
Where does gully erosion happen? on steep slopes where all or most vegetation has been removed.
What is saltation? One particle hitting another and being blown across the surface of the soil
What is suspension? airborne soil. ex- soil from lubbock is found in temple texas
What is surface creep? mountains/sand dunes; surface creeping slowly across. Landslides are an example of a very fast surface creep
How much productivity of the worlds land has been lost due to degraded topsoil? One third
What are the causes of desertification in degrading drylands? Overgrazing, deforestation, erosion, salinization, soil compaction, natural climate change
What are the consequences of desertification in degrading drylands? worsening drought, famine, economic losses, lower living standards, environmental refugees
Repeated irrigation can reduce crop yields by causing what? salt buildup in the soil and water logging of crop plants
What happens during salinization? irrigation water contains small amounts of dissolved salts, evaporation and transpiration leave salts behind, salt builds up in soil
What happens during water logging? Precipitation and irrigation water percolate downward, the water table rises
What are ways to reduce soil salinization? Reduce irrigation and switch to salt tolerant crops such as barley, cotton, and sugarbeet
What are ways to cleanup soil salinization? Flush soil(expensive and wastes water), stop growing crop for 2-5 years, install underground drainage systems (expensive)
White alkaline salts have displaced cops
What are shelter belts and what do they reduce? can reduce wind erosion. Long rows of trees are planted to partially block the wind.
What can shelter belts help to do? retain soil moisture, supply some wood for fuel, and provide habitats for birds
What is minimum tillage? (conservation tillage) to disturb the soil as little as possible while planting crops
What happens during minimum tillage? Special tillers break up and loosen the subsurface soil without turning over the topsoil, previous crop residues, and any cover vegetation
Fertilizers can help do what? restore soil nutrients
What can runoff of inorganic fertilizers cause? water pollution
What are hydrophonic crops? crops grown in fertilized water
What soil is best for plant growth? Loam
When does leaching occur? when humus is dissolved and chemical compounds carried to lower layers
What is not a consequence of desertification? abundant crop harvests

Plant Reproduction

Question Answer
Flowering plants grow their seeds inside an ovary, which is embedded in a flower.
The flower then becomes a ___ containing the seeds. fruit
Examples of flowering plants most trees, shrubs, vines, flowers, fruits, vegetables, and legumes.
Seeds can be dispersed by wind, water, or animals.
The seed’s coat helps protect the ___ from injury and also from drying out. embryo
Many ___ contain both male and female parts needed to produce new flowers. flowers
Flower ___ are often colorful or have a scent to attract insects and other animals. petals
Stamen The male part of a flower that has an anther on a filament.
The ___ produces the pollen that contains the sperm cells. anther
Pistil The female part of the flower that contains the stigma, style, and ovary
Ovary contains the ovules where the egg cells are produced
Stigma the sticky top of the pistil where pollen grains land
Style a stalk down which the pollen tube grows after pollination has taken place
Seed The ovule that contains the fertilized egg (embryo) from which new plants are formed.
A fruit that is formed from the ovary often protects the ___. seed
When seeds are dispersed from the parent plant, they can either lay ___ or they can begin to grow immediately given the right conditions. dormant
Germination early stage of seed growth.
During germination, the ___ begin to grow down, while the ___ and ___ grow up. roots; stem and leaves
Fertilization occurs when pollen transfers from stamen to the pistil and then enters the ovule.
Pollination occurs when pollen transfers from the stamen to the pistil
Once the ovule is ___ it develops into a seed. fertilized
A ___ (fleshy, pod, or shell) then develops to protect the seed. fruit
___ are structures that contain the young plant surrounded by a protective covering. seeds
Sexual Reproduction A process of reproduction that requires a sperm cell (in pollen) and an egg cell (in the ovule) to combine to produce a new organism.
All flowering plants undergo ___ reproduction. sexual
Asexual Reproduction A process of reproduction that involves only one parent plant or plant part and produces offspring identical to the parent plant.
Many plants can grow new plants ___ from their plant parts. asexually
If a plant is cut or damaged, it can sprout new growth from the ___, ___, or ___ stems, roots, or leaves.
Bulbs or Tubers are types of underground stems.
The “eyes” or ___ of tubers, for example potatoes, grow into roots and shoots to produce a new plant. buds
___, for example onions, are big buds made of a stem and special types of leaves. bulbs
Runners are types of stems that run along the ground.
New strawberries or some ivy grow from the tips of ___. runners
Many lawn grasses grow from ___. runners
When a piece of cut ___ is planted, roots may form from the cutting, and then a full plant develops. stem
Sugar cane and pineapple are examples of plants grown from ___ cuttings. stem
Some fruit trees and bushes send up “suckers” or new shoots from the ___ roots
Some plants have roots that can produce new plants from root pieces, such as a ___ potato. sweet
Some houseplants produce little plants right on their ___. leaves
The African violets can produce plants from ___ placed on top of soil. leaves

Pharm 44 Immuno suppression LECOM

Question Answer
Azathioprine AZA Class? Cytotoxic- Antimetabolite
Methotrexate MTX Class? Cytotoxic- Antimetabolite
Mycophenolic Acid Class ?
Mycophenolate Mofetil Class ? Cytotoxic- Antimetabolite
Leflunomide Class? Cytotoxic – Antimetabolite
Use in Renal transplant, IBS, and RA. Causes pancreatitis and hepatotoxicity Azathiprene
Use in tumors, autoimmune. Folate analogue inhibits DHFR methotrexate
Cyclophosphamide Class? Alkylating agent
Used almost exclusively with SLE or xenotransplants. Causes bladder cancer cyclophosphamide
Used to prevents cyclophosphamide bladder cancer mesna
Don’t give oral iron with this drug Mycophenolate mofetil
(2) Can cause GI bleed, lymphoma. Tx: solid organ, lupus nephritis, RA, Pemphigus Mycophen-olic acid /-olate mefetil
Tx: RA Hepatotoxic (long action). Causes lung disease CI:Pregnancy leflunomide
Adverse Effects: interstitial fibrosis, nephrotoxic, HTN, HCh, hepatotoxic cyclosporine
Tx: chronic dry eyes, organ transplant, RA, psoriasis. MOA: inhibits IL-2 release cyclosporine
Tx: organ transplant, atopic dermatitis SE: nephron, htn, prolong QT Tacrolimus
This is incorporated into coronary stents to prevent coronary artery smooth muscle proliferation Sirolimus
Tx: Organ transplant No nephrotoxicity SE: HTN, HLip, thrombocytopenia Sirolimus
Can cause demyelinating disease of CNS Tx: Psoriatic arthritis Blocks TNF- a & b Etanercept
Can cause demyelinating disease of CNS Tx: Psoriatic arthritis Blocks TNF-a Adalimumab
Tx: Crohn’s TNF-a blocker Pt has tuberculosis recurrence Infliximab
Tx: RA IL-1 blocker anakinra
Broad immunosuppression for acute kidney transplant rejection Causes cytokine release syndrome, Rabbit ATG
Broad immunosuppression for acute kidney transplant rejection Causes cytokine release syndrome, mouse OKT3
B-Cell targeters Tx: CD20+ non-H Lymphoma & 2nd ary treatment for RA when TNF-a inhibitors fail Rituximab
Only targets activated T cells given prophylactically for Kidney transplant Daclizumab
Treats B-cell chronic lymphocytic leukemia Alemtuzumab
Tx; Plaque psoriasis w/ months of relief after discontinued SE; dose dependent CD4/8 depletion and skin cancer CI:HIV Alefacept
This and TNF-a or anikinra leads to sure infection Abatacept
2ndary treatment of RA when TNF-a inhibitors or methotrexate doesn’t work causing T-cell anergy Abatacept
Tx: Chronic plaque psoriasis SE: immune mediated:thrombocytopenia, hemolytic anemia. Symptoms return immediately after stopped efalizumab
Treats MS but can cause Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy caused by JC virus Natalizumab